Okay, so here's a question for all of you prompted by
the previous post. First of all 'though, let me set the scene.
You're part of a group of six that works for a small business,
and one day, someone suggests setting up a Lottery syndicate.
"We'll each pay £12 into it every month in advance, and if
ever there's a winning ticket, we'll split the amount be-
tween us in equal shares." So that's what you do.
Remember, this syndicate is only open to employees,
not outsiders. One month you pay in your £12, and a few
days later, you give a fortnight's notice because you're sud-
denly offered a higher paid job elsewhere. Shortly after, your
former colleagues strike it lucky with a huge Lottery win and
you rub your hands with glee because the ticket was one
of the ones you helped pay for before leaving.
But no! Your erstwhile colleagues protest that the
winnings are for employees only, and that, as you're no
longer an employee, you're not entitled to any share of the
prize. "It doesn't matter that you were an employee at the
time the winning ticket was bought, fact is, you're not any
more so you're entitled to Jack Squat" they all say in a
smug manner. "Employees only" they repeat.
Now, if you have even an ounce of sense about you,
I'm sure you can see the flaw in the argument of the lucky
and greedy winners. If you're an employee at the time when
what later becomes the winning ticket was purchased, because
you contributed to it, you're entitled to your share fair of the
proceeds from it. That is essentially the exact same scenario
I outlined in the previous post, so the exact same principle
should be applied in both cases. To suggest anything
else is simply absurd in my view.
Your honour, I rest my case.
So here's the question: do you think the Lottery
syndicate is correct in their reasoning, and, if so, do you
think you'd be of the same view if you were the former
employee? The comments section awaits.
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